Questions submitted to info@bethanyhallgourock.org.uk

The following are questions submitted to our web-site with representative answers given. In giving answers we seek to be guided by, and true to, the Word of God, however we are conscious of our own fallibility and remain open to scriptural criticism of our answers.

Does your church baptise infants?

We seek to be true to the Word of God in all of our activities, baptism being no exception. We believe that baptism was intended for "those who believe" (Acts 2v41, Acts 8v12), and infants are therefore not in view. The scriptures do not contain a single example of a child bring baptised, the closest to this comes in Acts 16v31 - "thou shalt be saved - and thy house" - but there is no evidence that there were infants in this house, indeed it seems (17v32) all were capable of listening and understanding.

We believe infant baptism (or "christening" as it is often referred to) is a dangerous ceremony because it suggests to the unlearned that somehow through it the participant is brought closer to God, even into the state of salvation. There is often no suggestion in the ceremony that the individual has to exercise faith. It is often practiced by "sprinking" water on the forehead, a practice which conveys nothing of the symbolism of death, burial and resurrection spoken of in Romans 6v3,4, and which ignores the meaning of the Greek "baptizo", i.e. to immerse.

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Is baptism necessary for salvation?

This question often arises after a reading of a verse such as Mark 16v16, being the words of the Lord Jesus: "Whoever believes and is baptised will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned". A careful reading of the verse will show, however, that only two groups of people are described together with their futures, i.e., those who believe and are baptised, and those who do not believe. The verse says nothing about those who believe, but are not baptised.

Indeed, that itself is a clue to what I would go on to suggest, namely that salvation and (believer's) baptism in the scriptures are closely linked, for example Acts 2v38, Acts 2v41, Acts 8v12, Acts 18v18. There is, in fact, no real record of people who believed but who did not undergo baptism, the exceptions being two special groups of believers in Acts 10v48 and Acts 19v5, both groups subsequently undergoing baptism in the verses referred to. This close linkage is such that "believing and being baptised" are often thought of together; the Bible does not countenance an unbaptised believer.

In the doctrinal books of the New Testament there is clear teaching that repentance of sin and faith in Jesus Christ as Saviour are necessary for salvation. This is not only stated, but it is carefully explained; for example in great detail in Romans ch 1-8. Contrastingly, there is an absence of teaching about baptism as a requirement for salvation. Even just thinking about it, it doesn't make sense - there is no merit, no power in the ceremony of baptism - it cannot save! Someone once said, if you're not saved at the point of baptism, you go into the water as a dry sinner, and you come out as a wet sinner! Romans 6 does speak about baptism, but it is not teaching that we need to be baptised to experience salvation, rather it is speaking of baptism as an identification of the believer with the experiences of his/her Saviour. This concept of identification with the Lord through baptism is repeated elsewhere, see also 1 Cor 12v13, Gal 3v27, and it is clear (Rom 6 again) that baptism symbolises both the experience of the Lord, in His death, burial & resurrection, and of the believer in his/her death (to the world), burial (in separation from the world) and (joy!) resurrection (to new life). This vivid symbolism links baptism with salvation - as a testimony to the world, the believer, and the church - of a life changed.

1 Peter 3v21 is a difficult verse in that it says that those saved in the flood were saved through water, and that the water symbolises baptism that now saves the believer - but it's only difficult if you want it to be, for, the water didn't really save those in the ark, it was their faith in God to get into the vessel, and God's subsequent faithfulness in protecting them, that saved them. Similarily, the waters of baptism do not save today, but the death and new birth of which baptism speaks have to be gone through, like the waters around the ark, and that experience comes when a person exercises faith in the Lord Jesus to save them.

Further light can be shed on 1 Peter 3v21 and on baptism in general by considering other references to baptism in the Bible. Consider 1 Cor 10v2, "baptized unto Moses . . . " - this does not seem to speak of a ceremony, it speaks of identification with Moses, of casting one's lot in with him (placing one's faith in him) and entering into the consequences of doing so. Similarily, a believer can be viewed as being baptized unto the Lord Jesus at the moment he believes - and a subsequent water baptism is only a testimony to this. See also Mt 20v22.

I don't believe that the Bible teaches that water baptism is necessary for salvation. However, I would say that baptism is necessary for obedience. The Lord said "if you love me, you will obey what I command" (Jn 14v15). There are only two symbolic ordinances given by Him, one is to break bread in memory of Him (Lk 22v19), and the other is to be baptised (Mt 28v19). The Lord knows our circumstances and our hearts; He asks "do you truly love me more than these?" (Jn 21v15).

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How can you reconcile man's free will with God's sovereign choice?

You may or may not be aware that the issues which you raise have been the subject of much theological debate for many years, and many books have been written by men offering various shades of opinion on the matter. The most common traditional viewpoints are referred to as Calvinism and Arminianism, these terms can be found in any good regular dictionary. John Calvin (1509-64) emphasised predestination (although he did not completely deny free will), whilst Jacobus Arminius (1560-1609) believed that predestination was conditional upon man's free will. If your question arises from a theological context you may like to research the writings of each of these men and their followers.

It is indeed a perplexing issue, because the Word of God appears to teach both predestination (Rom 8v28; Eph 2v10) and free will (Gen 2; Deut 30v19; Acts 2v40). Sometimes it can be helpful to think of God's omniscience. I once had a good friend whom I knew very well. I knew him so well, in fact, that I believe I was able to say how he would react in any given situation. How much more so God, who knows everything about us, is able to surely know what our actions will be. This is not a full answer however, since we read that believers were actively "chosen in Christ before the foundation of the world" (Eph 1v4). In my opinion, the errors are introduced when we attempt to use man's wisdom and man's limited insight to set these teachings against each other. God declares "My thoughts are not your thoughts" (Is 55v8) and we should be wary of believing that we can fully understand God.

The danger of denying man's free will in his life and particular in his salvation is that this leads into fatalism: there is no point in preaching the Gospel; there is no point in seeking salvation; there is even no certainty of salvation. These viewpoints are clearly contrary to the Word of God (Matt 28v11; Acts 16v31; Jn 20v31); see also 2 Pet 3v9b. Similarily denying God's predestination is contrary to the scriptures already mentioned. I am drawn therefore towards the belief that both concepts are true - God predestines, and man has free will. The ultimate reconciliation of these two doctrines is beyond me, but I believe that my God operates at a level that is beyond my comprehension and in this matter it is only necessary for us to "be not faithless, only believe" (Jn 20v27).

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